- 2.5 hours -
Instructors: Jess H. Brewer & Domingo Louis-Martinez
The motion of B should be immediately recognized as SHM; it remains only to define the period (two seconds), the amplitude (one meter) and the initial phase (pi). Remember, each time you take a derivative (e.g. to get the velocity or the acceleration) you multiply by the frequency, which is larger than unity, so the smallest vertical excursions must be for the displacement itself.
ANSWER: The FBD for the satellite is trivial: there is a single force acting to cause a centripetal acceleration of ; Newton's Second Law thus demands or . Since s-1, plugging in G and M from the constants provided gives
For some reason lots of people felt the Earth's radius should be subtracted from this value.
Quite a few people used one year as the orbital period. ?!
Others calculated the velocity and centripetal acceleration of a point on the Earth's surface for some reason.
ANSWER: This question required that you remember one of the formulae for the energy of a photon, either E = h f (where f is the frequency in Hertz) or where is the wavelength of the light, c is the speed of light and h is Planck's constant (provided on the last page). This was the easy part, giving J and implying that the source is emitting photons per second. The harder part was then realizing that these N photons are spread all over the surface of a sphere at radius R, a total area of , of which only (where r = 0.003 m is the radius of the pupil) is intercepted by the eye's pupil. Thus we want , which you can then solve for
This was meant to be a conceptually challenging problem, but not a calculationally complex one. Hence its place in the ``Quickies'' section.
ANSWER: Again this is a simple problem once you get the idea, but many didn't. In steady state (after the beam has been going for a long time compared to microseconds) the number N0 of muons present in the target is (on average) constant. Thus dN/dt = 0 when N = N0. But a simple Chemistry-style rate equation says where I = 106 s-1 is the rate at which muons are supplied by the beam. So in steady state we must have or
For some reason a few people thought it didn't make sense to have a non-integer number of muons on average, so they rounded down to 2. ??
ANSWER: This part is just plain exponential decay: with N0 = 2.197 and the given value of . It's simplest to leave times in microseconds for this part. Thus to get N=1 we set 1 = 2.197 e-t/2.197 and take the log of both sides, giving
ANSWER: What matters here is whether there is any sudden acceleration of the end of the bat where you hold it. Call this point A and call the centre of mass C. The position of the ``sweet spot'' S is a distance x from A, whereas C is a distance L/2 from A for a uniform rod. The force F exerted by the ball on impact at S causes an acceleration of C given by ac = F/M where M is the mass of the bat. At the same time, F applied at S produces a torque about the centre of mass. This torque causes an angular acceleration where is the bat's moment of inertia about its centre of mass. The net acceleration of point A is the sum of the acceleration of C and the tangential acceleration of A relative to C due to . When these two exactly cancel, aA = 0 and there is no ``jerk'' at A.
ANSWER: Putting together the above equations gives or or or or
Several people guessed this answer. I gave some credit for good physical intuition.
This question was meant to be conceptually challenging, but it was surprising that only one person got it entirely right. Very few even saw the basic principle involved, demonstrating that an ability to reproduce a variety of practiced problem solutions is not the same as a real grasp of the principles of rigid body dynamics, which is necessary to solve even a simple problem of an unfamiliar type. This should not humiliate anyone, but rather give everyone a deeper respect for the subtlety of ``simple Mechanics''.
Another surprise was the number of people who evidently have never played any form of ball-and-bat game, and so had no physical intuition at all about the problem.
There were, as always, many who began hunting blindly for the right formula before asking, ``What's this really all about?'' You cannot do Physics this way. I hope this is now clear.
ANSWER: See sketch and FBD below. The box first slips
when the maximum acceleration of the platform is too large
to be transmitted to the box by the force of friction,
which has a maximum value of .
In SHM the
maximum acceleration is
,
where A = 0.4 m
is the amplitude and
s-1.
Thus in a few steps one obtains
or
or
(One often hears that
,
but if the box is glued
to the platform this is still physically realistic!)
ANSWER: The state with the lowest kinetic energy K is the one with the lowest momentum p, which (by de Broglie's formula) is the one with the longest wavelength . The longest wavelength one can fit into a box of length L and still get the required nodes at the endpoints is , giving and . Plugging in J-s, kg and L = 10-13 m gives J or
ANSWER: If
is 10 times smaller,
is 10 times bigger and
now
MeV.
ANSWER: If the binding energy were not of the order of then the neutron would have enough kinetic energy to escape, just from the effect of confinement. This result is off by a factor on the order of 2 or 3 for real nuclei, partly because of the 3-dimensional nature of the ``box'' and partly because the potential created by the strong interaction is not a square well but has ``soft sides'' allowing the neutron to spread out a bit extra. However, very large nuclei are indeed unstable against the loss of neutrons and protons, a topic to be studied at TRIUMF's new ISAC facility!
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